Convergence to a fixed point [duplicate]Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_n+1$.Confused about fixed point method conditionShrinking Map and Fixed Point via Iteration MethodWhich negation of the definition of a null sequence is correct?Relation between two different definitions of quadratic convergenceFixed point, bounded derivativeProving Cauchy when given a sequenceBanach fixed point questionHelp me understand this proof of Implicit Function Theorem on Banach spacesConvergence of functions (in sense of distributions)Banach fixed-point theoremIf the odd function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ letting $x>0$ is continuous at $x$, prove the function is continuous at $-x$.
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Convergence to a fixed point [duplicate]
Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_n+1$.Confused about fixed point method conditionShrinking Map and Fixed Point via Iteration MethodWhich negation of the definition of a null sequence is correct?Relation between two different definitions of quadratic convergenceFixed point, bounded derivativeProving Cauchy when given a sequenceBanach fixed point questionHelp me understand this proof of Implicit Function Theorem on Banach spacesConvergence of functions (in sense of distributions)Banach fixed-point theoremIf the odd function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ letting $x>0$ is continuous at $x$, prove the function is continuous at $-x$.
$begingroup$
This question already has an answer here:
Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_n+1$.
3 answers
Let $f : [a,b] rightarrow [a,b]$ be a continuous function s.t. $f'(x)$ is defined on $(a,b)$ and $leftlvert f'(x)rightrvert leqq t$ where $0<t<1$. Prove that for any point $x_0$ in $[a,b]$ the sequence defined by $$ x_n=f(x_n-1), n>0$$
converges to one unique fixed point.
Attempt:
Frankly, I have struggled to make a real attempt due to the fact that I can't find notes relating to this.
Obviously, I am assuming that there exists $x$ in$ [a,b]$ s.t. $f(x)=x$ but how do I relate the sequence to this $x$?
I'm strictly not allowed to assume Banach's theorem in this question, nor the Cauchy sequence because they come up on the second part of the course. I rather have to PROVE this.
analysis convergence numerical-methods fixed-point-theorems fixedpoints
$endgroup$
marked as duplicate by rtybase, Eevee Trainer, mrtaurho, Vinyl_cape_jawa, José Carlos Santos Mar 7 at 13:30
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This question already has an answer here:
Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_n+1$.
3 answers
Let $f : [a,b] rightarrow [a,b]$ be a continuous function s.t. $f'(x)$ is defined on $(a,b)$ and $leftlvert f'(x)rightrvert leqq t$ where $0<t<1$. Prove that for any point $x_0$ in $[a,b]$ the sequence defined by $$ x_n=f(x_n-1), n>0$$
converges to one unique fixed point.
Attempt:
Frankly, I have struggled to make a real attempt due to the fact that I can't find notes relating to this.
Obviously, I am assuming that there exists $x$ in$ [a,b]$ s.t. $f(x)=x$ but how do I relate the sequence to this $x$?
I'm strictly not allowed to assume Banach's theorem in this question, nor the Cauchy sequence because they come up on the second part of the course. I rather have to PROVE this.
analysis convergence numerical-methods fixed-point-theorems fixedpoints
$endgroup$
marked as duplicate by rtybase, Eevee Trainer, mrtaurho, Vinyl_cape_jawa, José Carlos Santos Mar 7 at 13:30
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
$begingroup$
Another related question.
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– rtybase
Mar 6 at 22:36
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
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– dantopa
Mar 7 at 0:58
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This question already has an answer here:
Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_n+1$.
3 answers
Let $f : [a,b] rightarrow [a,b]$ be a continuous function s.t. $f'(x)$ is defined on $(a,b)$ and $leftlvert f'(x)rightrvert leqq t$ where $0<t<1$. Prove that for any point $x_0$ in $[a,b]$ the sequence defined by $$ x_n=f(x_n-1), n>0$$
converges to one unique fixed point.
Attempt:
Frankly, I have struggled to make a real attempt due to the fact that I can't find notes relating to this.
Obviously, I am assuming that there exists $x$ in$ [a,b]$ s.t. $f(x)=x$ but how do I relate the sequence to this $x$?
I'm strictly not allowed to assume Banach's theorem in this question, nor the Cauchy sequence because they come up on the second part of the course. I rather have to PROVE this.
analysis convergence numerical-methods fixed-point-theorems fixedpoints
$endgroup$
This question already has an answer here:
Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_n+1$.
3 answers
Let $f : [a,b] rightarrow [a,b]$ be a continuous function s.t. $f'(x)$ is defined on $(a,b)$ and $leftlvert f'(x)rightrvert leqq t$ where $0<t<1$. Prove that for any point $x_0$ in $[a,b]$ the sequence defined by $$ x_n=f(x_n-1), n>0$$
converges to one unique fixed point.
Attempt:
Frankly, I have struggled to make a real attempt due to the fact that I can't find notes relating to this.
Obviously, I am assuming that there exists $x$ in$ [a,b]$ s.t. $f(x)=x$ but how do I relate the sequence to this $x$?
I'm strictly not allowed to assume Banach's theorem in this question, nor the Cauchy sequence because they come up on the second part of the course. I rather have to PROVE this.
This question already has an answer here:
Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_n+1$.
3 answers
analysis convergence numerical-methods fixed-point-theorems fixedpoints
analysis convergence numerical-methods fixed-point-theorems fixedpoints
edited Mar 6 at 23:21
Grace
asked Mar 6 at 22:27
Grace Grace
255
255
marked as duplicate by rtybase, Eevee Trainer, mrtaurho, Vinyl_cape_jawa, José Carlos Santos Mar 7 at 13:30
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
marked as duplicate by rtybase, Eevee Trainer, mrtaurho, Vinyl_cape_jawa, José Carlos Santos Mar 7 at 13:30
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
$begingroup$
Another related question.
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Mar 6 at 22:36
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
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– dantopa
Mar 7 at 0:58
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another related question.
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– rtybase
Mar 6 at 22:36
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Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
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– dantopa
Mar 7 at 0:58
$begingroup$
Another related question.
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– rtybase
Mar 6 at 22:36
$begingroup$
Another related question.
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Mar 6 at 22:36
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
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– dantopa
Mar 7 at 0:58
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Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
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– dantopa
Mar 7 at 0:58
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3 Answers
3
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oldest
votes
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To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_m+1-x_m|+|x_m+2-x_m+1|$$ $$+cdots+|x_n-x_n-1|leq |x_m+1-x_m| (1+t+t^2+cdots+t^n+m-1)$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_m+1-x_m| leq t^m-1 |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^n$ conclude that $x_n$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
$endgroup$
– Grace
Mar 7 at 9:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence $x_n $ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.
Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
$$x_n = F(x_n-1) $$
will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.
Since in this case you know that
$$|f'(x)| leq t $$
This implies that
$$Big|fracf(x) - f(y)x - yBig| leq t$$
for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).
This implies that
$$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$
which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence
$$ x_n = f(x_n-1)$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Shore
Mar 6 at 22:50
$begingroup$
@RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Mar 6 at 22:52
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_m+1-x_m|+|x_m+2-x_m+1|$$ $$+cdots+|x_n-x_n-1|leq |x_m+1-x_m| (1+t+t^2+cdots+t^n+m-1)$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_m+1-x_m| leq t^m-1 |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^n$ conclude that $x_n$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
$endgroup$
– Grace
Mar 7 at 9:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_m+1-x_m|+|x_m+2-x_m+1|$$ $$+cdots+|x_n-x_n-1|leq |x_m+1-x_m| (1+t+t^2+cdots+t^n+m-1)$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_m+1-x_m| leq t^m-1 |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^n$ conclude that $x_n$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
$endgroup$
– Grace
Mar 7 at 9:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_m+1-x_m|+|x_m+2-x_m+1|$$ $$+cdots+|x_n-x_n-1|leq |x_m+1-x_m| (1+t+t^2+cdots+t^n+m-1)$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_m+1-x_m| leq t^m-1 |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^n$ conclude that $x_n$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.
$endgroup$
To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_m+1-x_m|+|x_m+2-x_m+1|$$ $$+cdots+|x_n-x_n-1|leq |x_m+1-x_m| (1+t+t^2+cdots+t^n+m-1)$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_m+1-x_m| leq t^m-1 |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^n$ conclude that $x_n$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.
answered Mar 6 at 23:43
Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy
68.7k53169
68.7k53169
$begingroup$
Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
$endgroup$
– Grace
Mar 7 at 9:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
$endgroup$
– Grace
Mar 7 at 9:20
$begingroup$
Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
$endgroup$
– Grace
Mar 7 at 9:20
$begingroup$
Thank you! This is very helpful :-)
$endgroup$
– Grace
Mar 7 at 9:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence $x_n $ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence $x_n $ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence $x_n $ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.
$endgroup$
The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence $x_n $ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.
edited Mar 6 at 22:49
answered Mar 6 at 22:40
Robert ShoreRobert Shore
3,225323
3,225323
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.
Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
$$x_n = F(x_n-1) $$
will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.
Since in this case you know that
$$|f'(x)| leq t $$
This implies that
$$Big|fracf(x) - f(y)x - yBig| leq t$$
for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).
This implies that
$$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$
which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence
$$ x_n = f(x_n-1)$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Shore
Mar 6 at 22:50
$begingroup$
@RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Mar 6 at 22:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.
Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
$$x_n = F(x_n-1) $$
will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.
Since in this case you know that
$$|f'(x)| leq t $$
This implies that
$$Big|fracf(x) - f(y)x - yBig| leq t$$
for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).
This implies that
$$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$
which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence
$$ x_n = f(x_n-1)$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Shore
Mar 6 at 22:50
$begingroup$
@RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Mar 6 at 22:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.
Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
$$x_n = F(x_n-1) $$
will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.
Since in this case you know that
$$|f'(x)| leq t $$
This implies that
$$Big|fracf(x) - f(y)x - yBig| leq t$$
for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).
This implies that
$$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$
which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence
$$ x_n = f(x_n-1)$$
$endgroup$
This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.
Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
$$x_n = F(x_n-1) $$
will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.
Since in this case you know that
$$|f'(x)| leq t $$
This implies that
$$Big|fracf(x) - f(y)x - yBig| leq t$$
for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).
This implies that
$$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$
which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence
$$ x_n = f(x_n-1)$$
answered Mar 6 at 22:44
Sean LeeSean Lee
533212
533212
$begingroup$
Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Shore
Mar 6 at 22:50
$begingroup$
@RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Mar 6 at 22:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Shore
Mar 6 at 22:50
$begingroup$
@RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Mar 6 at 22:52
$begingroup$
Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Shore
Mar 6 at 22:50
$begingroup$
Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Shore
Mar 6 at 22:50
$begingroup$
@RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Mar 6 at 22:52
$begingroup$
@RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Mar 6 at 22:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another related question.
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Mar 6 at 22:36
$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
Mar 7 at 0:58