Genitives like “axeos”In the title “Ars Goetia,” is “Goetia” an appositive noun?Why are Greek nouns in -ον, -ος transliterated in Latin as -um, -us?Why does “ῤάρος” have a smooth breathing?Is the prefix “di-” more Latin-like than “bi-”?Inflections of ΖεύςHow did “glutaeus/gluteus” come from Greek “gloutos”? Would “glutiaeus” be more correct?How and when did we get two forms of sigma?When transliterating from Latin to Greek, what kind of rho is used?When did the Romans start using Z?Different greek cases for Theos
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Genitives like “axeos”
In the title “Ars Goetia,” is “Goetia” an appositive noun?Why are Greek nouns in -ον, -ος transliterated in Latin as -um, -us?Why does “ῤάρος” have a smooth breathing?Is the prefix “di-” more Latin-like than “bi-”?Inflections of ΖεύςHow did “glutaeus/gluteus” come from Greek “gloutos”? Would “glutiaeus” be more correct?How and when did we get two forms of sigma?When transliterating from Latin to Greek, what kind of rho is used?When did the Romans start using Z?Different greek cases for Theos
I recently encountered a text written in Latin in Finland about two centuries ago using the form axeos.
From context it was clear that it was a genitive, and it looks just like the Greek genitive of words like polis.
But the word axis has also a Latin style genitive axis, and L&S mentions it as the only genitive.
When do genitives like axeos appear in Latin?
I assume they only appear in (perceived) Greek loans where nominative and genitive would look alike, ending in -is.
Is this form restricted to some contexts, eras, words, or authors?
Is only used when ambiguity between nominative and genitive would be an issue?
I understand the form but, frankly, I have no idea when to expect it.
Any insight is welcome.
greek morphologia declinatio substantivum declinatio-tertia
asked Mar 7 at 17:42
Joonas Ilmavirta♦Joonas Ilmavirta
48.9k1271287
add a comment |
I recently encountered a text written in Latin in Finland about two centuries ago using the form axeos.
From context it was clear that it was a genitive, and it looks just like the Greek genitive of words like polis.
But the word axis has also a Latin style genitive axis, and L&S mentions it as the only genitive.
When do genitives like axeos appear in Latin?
I assume they only appear in (perceived) Greek loans where nominative and genitive would look alike, ending in -is.
Is this form restricted to some contexts, eras, words, or authors?
Is only used when ambiguity between nominative and genitive would be an issue?
I understand the form but, frankly, I have no idea when to expect it.
Any insight is welcome.
greek morphologia declinatio substantivum declinatio-tertia
asked Mar 7 at 17:42
Joonas Ilmavirta♦Joonas Ilmavirta
48.9k1271287
add a comment |
I recently encountered a text written in Latin in Finland about two centuries ago using the form axeos.
From context it was clear that it was a genitive, and it looks just like the Greek genitive of words like polis.
But the word axis has also a Latin style genitive axis, and L&S mentions it as the only genitive.
When do genitives like axeos appear in Latin?
I assume they only appear in (perceived) Greek loans where nominative and genitive would look alike, ending in -is.
Is this form restricted to some contexts, eras, words, or authors?
Is only used when ambiguity between nominative and genitive would be an issue?
I understand the form but, frankly, I have no idea when to expect it.
Any insight is welcome.
greek morphologia declinatio substantivum declinatio-tertia
asked Mar 7 at 17:42
Joonas Ilmavirta♦Joonas Ilmavirta
48.9k1271287
I recently encountered a text written in Latin in Finland about two centuries ago using the form axeos.
From context it was clear that it was a genitive, and it looks just like the Greek genitive of words like polis.
But the word axis has also a Latin style genitive axis, and L&S mentions it as the only genitive.
When do genitives like axeos appear in Latin?
I assume they only appear in (perceived) Greek loans where nominative and genitive would look alike, ending in -is.
Is this form restricted to some contexts, eras, words, or authors?
Is only used when ambiguity between nominative and genitive would be an issue?
I understand the form but, frankly, I have no idea when to expect it.
Any insight is welcome.
greek morphologia declinatio substantivum declinatio-tertia
greek morphologia declinatio substantivum declinatio-tertia
asked Mar 7 at 17:42
Joonas Ilmavirta♦Joonas Ilmavirta
48.9k1271287
asked Mar 7 at 17:42
Joonas Ilmavirta♦Joonas Ilmavirta
48.9k1271287
edited Mar 7 at 20:31
Joonas Ilmavirta
asked Mar 7 at 17:42
Joonas Ilmavirta♦Joonas Ilmavirta
48.9k1271287
asked Mar 7 at 17:42
Joonas Ilmavirta♦Joonas Ilmavirta
48.9k1271287
asked Mar 7 at 17:42
Joonas Ilmavirta♦Joonas Ilmavirta
48.9k1271287
48.9k1271287
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
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active
oldest
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For what it's worth, I think this was simply a mistake.
Greek nouns ending in -is are generally third-declension i-stems, like póli-s. In Attic, these nouns tend to show an -i- in some forms and an -ei- in others, with no particular logic that I've ever learned; quantitative metathesis and contraction then make the forms even less predictable. The genitive singular of póli-s, for example, shifted from *póli-os to *poléi-os to póle-ōs.
Since these forms are so unpredictable, they have to be memorized rather than derived; I imagine Greek-speakers just learned that -is went to -eōs in the genitive, as a special rule, treating pól- as the stem and -eōs as the ending.
This writer seems to have then brought it into Latin as a sort of hypercorrection: axis is a native Latin word that never came through Greek (the Greek cognate is áxōn, with a regular genitive áxon-os), and Latin never had the vowel alternations and shifts that created póleōs.
answered Mar 7 at 18:54
DraconisDraconis
18.1k22474
You have convinced me that it is most likely hypercorrection. Now I just wonder how common it is.
– Joonas Ilmavirta♦
Mar 8 at 17:05
add a comment |
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For what it's worth, I think this was simply a mistake.
Greek nouns ending in -is are generally third-declension i-stems, like póli-s. In Attic, these nouns tend to show an -i- in some forms and an -ei- in others, with no particular logic that I've ever learned; quantitative metathesis and contraction then make the forms even less predictable. The genitive singular of póli-s, for example, shifted from *póli-os to *poléi-os to póle-ōs.
Since these forms are so unpredictable, they have to be memorized rather than derived; I imagine Greek-speakers just learned that -is went to -eōs in the genitive, as a special rule, treating pól- as the stem and -eōs as the ending.
This writer seems to have then brought it into Latin as a sort of hypercorrection: axis is a native Latin word that never came through Greek (the Greek cognate is áxōn, with a regular genitive áxon-os), and Latin never had the vowel alternations and shifts that created póleōs.
answered Mar 7 at 18:54
DraconisDraconis
18.1k22474
You have convinced me that it is most likely hypercorrection. Now I just wonder how common it is.
– Joonas Ilmavirta♦
Mar 8 at 17:05
add a comment |
For what it's worth, I think this was simply a mistake.
Greek nouns ending in -is are generally third-declension i-stems, like póli-s. In Attic, these nouns tend to show an -i- in some forms and an -ei- in others, with no particular logic that I've ever learned; quantitative metathesis and contraction then make the forms even less predictable. The genitive singular of póli-s, for example, shifted from *póli-os to *poléi-os to póle-ōs.
Since these forms are so unpredictable, they have to be memorized rather than derived; I imagine Greek-speakers just learned that -is went to -eōs in the genitive, as a special rule, treating pól- as the stem and -eōs as the ending.
This writer seems to have then brought it into Latin as a sort of hypercorrection: axis is a native Latin word that never came through Greek (the Greek cognate is áxōn, with a regular genitive áxon-os), and Latin never had the vowel alternations and shifts that created póleōs.
answered Mar 7 at 18:54
DraconisDraconis
18.1k22474
You have convinced me that it is most likely hypercorrection. Now I just wonder how common it is.
– Joonas Ilmavirta♦
Mar 8 at 17:05
add a comment |
For what it's worth, I think this was simply a mistake.
Greek nouns ending in -is are generally third-declension i-stems, like póli-s. In Attic, these nouns tend to show an -i- in some forms and an -ei- in others, with no particular logic that I've ever learned; quantitative metathesis and contraction then make the forms even less predictable. The genitive singular of póli-s, for example, shifted from *póli-os to *poléi-os to póle-ōs.
Since these forms are so unpredictable, they have to be memorized rather than derived; I imagine Greek-speakers just learned that -is went to -eōs in the genitive, as a special rule, treating pól- as the stem and -eōs as the ending.
This writer seems to have then brought it into Latin as a sort of hypercorrection: axis is a native Latin word that never came through Greek (the Greek cognate is áxōn, with a regular genitive áxon-os), and Latin never had the vowel alternations and shifts that created póleōs.
answered Mar 7 at 18:54
DraconisDraconis
18.1k22474
For what it's worth, I think this was simply a mistake.
Greek nouns ending in -is are generally third-declension i-stems, like póli-s. In Attic, these nouns tend to show an -i- in some forms and an -ei- in others, with no particular logic that I've ever learned; quantitative metathesis and contraction then make the forms even less predictable. The genitive singular of póli-s, for example, shifted from *póli-os to *poléi-os to póle-ōs.
Since these forms are so unpredictable, they have to be memorized rather than derived; I imagine Greek-speakers just learned that -is went to -eōs in the genitive, as a special rule, treating pól- as the stem and -eōs as the ending.
This writer seems to have then brought it into Latin as a sort of hypercorrection: axis is a native Latin word that never came through Greek (the Greek cognate is áxōn, with a regular genitive áxon-os), and Latin never had the vowel alternations and shifts that created póleōs.
answered Mar 7 at 18:54
DraconisDraconis
18.1k22474
answered Mar 7 at 18:54
DraconisDraconis
18.1k22474
answered Mar 7 at 18:54
DraconisDraconis
18.1k22474
answered Mar 7 at 18:54
DraconisDraconis
18.1k22474
18.1k22474
You have convinced me that it is most likely hypercorrection. Now I just wonder how common it is.
– Joonas Ilmavirta♦
Mar 8 at 17:05
add a comment |
You have convinced me that it is most likely hypercorrection. Now I just wonder how common it is.
– Joonas Ilmavirta♦
Mar 8 at 17:05
You have convinced me that it is most likely hypercorrection. Now I just wonder how common it is.
– Joonas Ilmavirta♦
Mar 8 at 17:05
You have convinced me that it is most likely hypercorrection. Now I just wonder how common it is.
– Joonas Ilmavirta♦
Mar 8 at 17:05
add a comment |
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